Orthogonal complement polarity
Let
is a
Proof
First we will show the column/kernel characterization always exists. Let
be a basis for ( π’ π ) π π = 0 , and let π so π = [ π’ 1 , β¦ , π’ π ] . Then c o l s p β‘ π = π iff π£ β k e r β‘ π for all π’ π³ π π£ = 0 . Since any π = 1 , β¦ , π is a finite linear combination of π’ β π , it follows π’ π for any π’ π³ π£ = 0 . Thus π’ β π . π ( π ) = k e r β‘ π Since
it follows from the Rank-nullity theorem that r a n k β‘ π = r a n k β‘ π π³ = d i m β‘ π . d i m β‘ π + d i m β‘ π ( π ) = π + 1 Note that
clearly reverses inclusion of vector subspaces: If π then certainly all vectors orthogonal to π β€ π are orthogonal to π , i.e. π . With the observation above, this shows that π ( π ) β€ π ( π ) is incidence-preserving and is therefore a projective polarity. π
It follows that every projective correlation of
Properties
- The orthogonal complement commutes with any field automorphism.
- Let
. Thenπ΄ β P G L π + 1 ( π ) .π π΄ π = ( π΄ β 1 ) π³ = ( π΄ π³ ) β 1
Proof of 1β2
Let
and π β A u t β‘ ( π ) . Then π = c o l s p β‘ π π ( π π ) = π ( π c o l s p β‘ π ) = π c o l s p β‘ ( π π ) = k e r β‘ ( ( π π ) π³ ) = k e r β‘ ( π π π³ ) so
π£ β π ( π π ) βΊ ( π π π³ ) π£ = 0 βΊ π β 1 ( ( π π π³ ) π£ ) = 0 βΊ π π³ ( π β 1 π£ ) = 0 Similarly
π ( π π ) = π ( π c o l s p β‘ π ) = π k e r β‘ π π³ so
π£ β π ( π π ) βΊ π β 1 π£ β k e r β‘ π π³ βΊ π π³ ( π β 1 π£ ) = 0 Therefore
, proving ^P1. check π ( π π ) = π ( π π ) Let
and π = c o l s p β‘ π Then π΄ β P G L π + 1 ( π ) π£ β π΄ π π βΊ π΄ β 1 π£ β k e r β‘ π π³ βΊ π π³ π΄ β 1 π£ = 0 thus
π΄ π π = k e r β‘ π π³ π΄ β 1 = k e r β‘ ( ( π΄ β 1 ) π³ π ) π³ = π c o l s p β‘ ( ( π΄ β 1 ) π³ π ) = π ( π΄ β 1 ) π³ π But since
, it follows π 2 = 1 , proving ^P2. π π΄ π π = ( π΄ β 1 ) π³ π